Why do inequalities flip signs?
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Is there a mathematical reason (like a proof) of why this happens? You can do it with examples and it is 'intuitive.' But the proof of why this happens is never shown in pedagogy, we just warn students to remember to flip the inequality when
- multiply or divide by a negative number both sides
$$-2>-3 implies 2 < 3$$
- take reciprocals of same sign fractions both sides
$$frac{3}{4} > frac{1}{2} implies frac{4}{3} < 2$$
proofs
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up vote
10
down vote
favorite
Is there a mathematical reason (like a proof) of why this happens? You can do it with examples and it is 'intuitive.' But the proof of why this happens is never shown in pedagogy, we just warn students to remember to flip the inequality when
- multiply or divide by a negative number both sides
$$-2>-3 implies 2 < 3$$
- take reciprocals of same sign fractions both sides
$$frac{3}{4} > frac{1}{2} implies frac{4}{3} < 2$$
proofs
1
See math.stackexchange.com/questions/1543722/…
– TreFox
yesterday
But the proof of why this happens is never shown in pedagogy --- I was curious about the book I used in high school algebra 1 (actually was the 1970 revised edition), since it was new-math based and heavy with proofs (actually, it was mostly heavy with terminological formalism), and it only gives some numerical examples of how multiplying by a negative number reverses the order and then simply states the results in a "Multiplication Axiom of Order" shaded section.
– Dave L Renfro
11 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
10
down vote
favorite
up vote
10
down vote
favorite
Is there a mathematical reason (like a proof) of why this happens? You can do it with examples and it is 'intuitive.' But the proof of why this happens is never shown in pedagogy, we just warn students to remember to flip the inequality when
- multiply or divide by a negative number both sides
$$-2>-3 implies 2 < 3$$
- take reciprocals of same sign fractions both sides
$$frac{3}{4} > frac{1}{2} implies frac{4}{3} < 2$$
proofs
Is there a mathematical reason (like a proof) of why this happens? You can do it with examples and it is 'intuitive.' But the proof of why this happens is never shown in pedagogy, we just warn students to remember to flip the inequality when
- multiply or divide by a negative number both sides
$$-2>-3 implies 2 < 3$$
- take reciprocals of same sign fractions both sides
$$frac{3}{4} > frac{1}{2} implies frac{4}{3} < 2$$
proofs
proofs
edited 1 hour ago
J.G.
1433
1433
asked yesterday
Lenny
245110
245110
1
See math.stackexchange.com/questions/1543722/…
– TreFox
yesterday
But the proof of why this happens is never shown in pedagogy --- I was curious about the book I used in high school algebra 1 (actually was the 1970 revised edition), since it was new-math based and heavy with proofs (actually, it was mostly heavy with terminological formalism), and it only gives some numerical examples of how multiplying by a negative number reverses the order and then simply states the results in a "Multiplication Axiom of Order" shaded section.
– Dave L Renfro
11 hours ago
add a comment |
1
See math.stackexchange.com/questions/1543722/…
– TreFox
yesterday
But the proof of why this happens is never shown in pedagogy --- I was curious about the book I used in high school algebra 1 (actually was the 1970 revised edition), since it was new-math based and heavy with proofs (actually, it was mostly heavy with terminological formalism), and it only gives some numerical examples of how multiplying by a negative number reverses the order and then simply states the results in a "Multiplication Axiom of Order" shaded section.
– Dave L Renfro
11 hours ago
1
1
See math.stackexchange.com/questions/1543722/…
– TreFox
yesterday
See math.stackexchange.com/questions/1543722/…
– TreFox
yesterday
But the proof of why this happens is never shown in pedagogy --- I was curious about the book I used in high school algebra 1 (actually was the 1970 revised edition), since it was new-math based and heavy with proofs (actually, it was mostly heavy with terminological formalism), and it only gives some numerical examples of how multiplying by a negative number reverses the order and then simply states the results in a "Multiplication Axiom of Order" shaded section.
– Dave L Renfro
11 hours ago
But the proof of why this happens is never shown in pedagogy --- I was curious about the book I used in high school algebra 1 (actually was the 1970 revised edition), since it was new-math based and heavy with proofs (actually, it was mostly heavy with terminological formalism), and it only gives some numerical examples of how multiplying by a negative number reverses the order and then simply states the results in a "Multiplication Axiom of Order" shaded section.
– Dave L Renfro
11 hours ago
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9 Answers
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active
oldest
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up vote
33
down vote
accepted
I'm slightly concerned that
Is there a mathematical reason (like a proof) of why this happens?
is a purely mathematical question, but since you write "we just warn students" I will assume that this question is purposefully asked here on Math Educators StackExchange.
As to a proof:
Given $a>b$, subtract $a$ from both sides: $0 > b-a$.
Next, subtract $b$ from both sides: $-b > -a$.
Note that this final inequality is equivalent to $-a < -b$.
And so we have proved: If $a > b$, then $-a < -b$.
3
Sweet, and the same works for reciprocation (if $a<b$ are of the same sign, divide by their strictly positive product $ab$)
– Vandermonde
yesterday
3
thanks, I get that the concern for proof is technically mathematical but it isn't covered in any proof for any math courses since it's just elementary and assumed to just be understood (in the US anyways). I'm just curious how to show it if some student ever asks.
– Lenny
yesterday
2
@Lenny This sort of thing is often proved in an introductory real analysis course.
– Steven Gubkin
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
8
down vote
Depending on the context and the previous curriculum, the following might work:
- "less than" means "to the left of" on the number line.
- Multiplying by a negative number flips numbers around 0.
- Thus, "left of" becomes "right of", or "greater than".
1
This works for reciprocals because you flip (say) the positive reals around 1 (and squash all the numbers greater than one into the unit interval, and stretch the unit interval out to infinity). That's harder to show on a blackboard, but makes for a nice visual if you can find a way to demo it.
– Kevin
yesterday
This seems like a visual translation of the intuitive understanding, but the question was asking for a mathematical explanation.
– Barmar
23 hours ago
If inequalities are defined on the number line and multiplication by -1 as flipping, this is 100% mathematical.
– Jasper
22 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
For multiplying or dividing by -1...
$$begin{align}
a&>b\
a-b&>0\
\-(a-b)&<0\
-a&<-b
end{align}
$$
(You can then extended to arbitrary negative numbers by multiplying or dividing by the [positive] magnitude.)
For taking reciprocals... assuming $ab>0$
$$begin{align}
a&>b\
left(frac{1}{ab}right)a&>left(frac{1}{ab}right)b\
frac{1}{b}&>frac{1}{a}\
frac{1}{a}&<frac{1}{b}\
end{align}
$$
New contributor
1
You might want to add some words in the slot where you flipped the sign from > 0 to < 0. My first reaction was that you just used the fact you were trying to prove. Anyway welcome to the site!
– Chris Cunningham
yesterday
2
Thanks... when posting I tried (unsuccessfully) to use intertext... so I tried a lineskip and went with that... avoiding further delay. Luckily(?), my post came in 2 minutes before the accepted answer by @Benjamin.
– robphy
yesterday
@robphy What is the point of the third step? You can go straight from the second to the fourth by subtracting $a$ from both sides and it doesn't need an additional rule that $a > 0 Rightarrow -a < 0$.
– Solomonoff's Secret
yesterday
In the spirit of my second proof, I should have subtracted the sum (a+b) from the first line. But I wanted to explicitly do the "multiplication by -1" because that subtraction move might not be obvious to a novice. In the spirit of my first proof, I should have divided both sides by b, then taken the reciprocal explicitly so that a/b > 1 becomes b/a <1. Then divide both sides by b to get 1/a < 1/b.
– robphy
21 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
Perhaps one way to see (and explain intuitively to children) the "multiply by $-1$ part" is the following. Imagine your two numbers, $a$ and $b$, lying on the numberline. Multiplying by $-1$ is like 'rotating the numberline through 180°': imagine it's a straight metal pole, lying flat on the ground; pick it up by the middle, and rotate it 'long ways' (ie not 'barrel roll') 180°. (One only needs to consider the line segment $[-max{a,b},max{a,b}]$ for this, in case you get a smart-arse saying you can't move something of infinite mass!)
It is hopefully clear to most people why the point that was to the right is now to the left.
This is only a visual intuition -- one of course needs to make this a rigorous proof, and the other answers do this -- however such intuition can often be valuable to early-learners.
A similar, but slightly less clean, statement can be made regarding inversion: take just the positive real axis $(0,infty)$; rotate it around the number $1$. (Since, again, we can look at $(0,M)$ for say $M = a + b$ (with $a,b > 0$), one could imagine some sort of ellipse.)
I would draw graphics to illustrate... if only I were better at doing so!
PS. In complex analysis, multiplying by $-1$ really is rotating by 180°!
New contributor
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up vote
2
down vote
In a more general case this happens if you deal with a strictly monotonic decreasing function like f(x) = -x or f(x) = 1/x (in the positive or negative numbers).
New contributor
Is monotonic monotonous? Just a humorous question.
– JosephDoggie
yesterday
@ChrisCunningham Yes, you're right of course. That's what you get for expecting google to treat the term as an entity.
– user10545
yesterday
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up vote
1
down vote
Which would you rather I give you: 10 cookies or 8 cookies? Okay, now which would you rather have me take away: 10 cookies, or 8 cookies? Adding 10 gives you a larger number than adding 8, but subtracting 10 means leaves you with a smaller number than subtracting 8 does. Similarly, multiplying by 3 gives you more than multiplying by 2, but dividing by 3 gives you less than dividing by 2.
Moral plus one.
– guest
yesterday
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up vote
1
down vote
I can't help but feel this question highlights the self defeating nature of teaching maths via "cheat tricks". In my opinion it is probably best not to teach students ever to just "switch the sign" of the inequality in an arbitrary manner, which can be confusing.
As elegantly illustrated by @Benjamin_Dickman's proof, the alternative notation
$$a>b quad text{implies} quad -b>-a$$
is much clearer, and invites the student to treat the inequality as a fixed equivalence in the same way they would treat an equality.
I feel it might be less confusing for students were this convention adopted, and the inequality was never reversed but for as a last resort. That would mean one less "rule" for students to "remember".
New contributor
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up vote
0
down vote
I see it as a combination of the following, when we assume a field with a positive cone, and trichotomy. We want to show that if $a<b$ and $c<0$, then $cb<ac$.
It is natural to expect the product of positive numbers to be positive.
We denote the additive inverse of $a$ by $-a$.
We note, from $a+(-a)=0$, that $-(-a)=a$.
We note that $(-a)b=-(ab)$. Proof: $(-a)b+ab=(-a+a)b=0times b=0$ (one can earlier deduce that multiplication by $0$ is $0$ from distributivity).
Now $(-a)(-b)=-(a(-b))=-((-b)a)=-(-ab)=ab$.
From the above we conclude that the product of two negative numbers is positive, and that a positive number times a negative is negative.
Now if $a<b$ and $c<0$, we have $b-a>0$ and $-c>0$, so $(-c)(b-a)>0$. That is, $-cb+ac>0$, or $cb<ac$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Other answers address multiplication by a negative number on both sides better than I can. For taking reciprocals of both sides, it may be helpful to examine why we know we can do that and maintain equality. This is one simple demonstration:
Starting with the equation $frac{a}{b}=frac{c}{d}$,
we can multiply both sides by $frac{d}{c}$, giving $frac{ad}{bc}=frac{cd}{dc}$, which simplifies to $frac{ac}{bd}=1$.
We can then do the same with $frac{b}{a}$, giving $frac{bad}{abc}=frac{b}{a}cdot 1$, which simplifies to $frac{d}{c}=frac{b}{a}$.
This shows that if two numbers are equal, then their reciprocals are equal. However, notice that we didn't just turn each number into its reciprocal. We also flipped their positions: the $frac{a}{b}$ on the left became $frac{b}{a}$, but on the right. When we're talking about equality, this is inconsequential, since equality is symmetric. However, if you take the same example with $=$ replaced with $>$ or $<$, the fact that the values "switched places" does matter.
This demonstration also shows why the sign only flips when both sides have the same sign. If they have different signs, then their reciprocals also have different signs, and exactly one of the multiplications by a reciprocal causes the inequality to flip. So you could argue that it does flip, but then it flips again, making it seem like it hasn't flipped. Similarly, if both sides are negative, it flips a total of three times, which has the same result as flipping once.
New contributor
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9 Answers
9
active
oldest
votes
9 Answers
9
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
33
down vote
accepted
I'm slightly concerned that
Is there a mathematical reason (like a proof) of why this happens?
is a purely mathematical question, but since you write "we just warn students" I will assume that this question is purposefully asked here on Math Educators StackExchange.
As to a proof:
Given $a>b$, subtract $a$ from both sides: $0 > b-a$.
Next, subtract $b$ from both sides: $-b > -a$.
Note that this final inequality is equivalent to $-a < -b$.
And so we have proved: If $a > b$, then $-a < -b$.
3
Sweet, and the same works for reciprocation (if $a<b$ are of the same sign, divide by their strictly positive product $ab$)
– Vandermonde
yesterday
3
thanks, I get that the concern for proof is technically mathematical but it isn't covered in any proof for any math courses since it's just elementary and assumed to just be understood (in the US anyways). I'm just curious how to show it if some student ever asks.
– Lenny
yesterday
2
@Lenny This sort of thing is often proved in an introductory real analysis course.
– Steven Gubkin
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
33
down vote
accepted
I'm slightly concerned that
Is there a mathematical reason (like a proof) of why this happens?
is a purely mathematical question, but since you write "we just warn students" I will assume that this question is purposefully asked here on Math Educators StackExchange.
As to a proof:
Given $a>b$, subtract $a$ from both sides: $0 > b-a$.
Next, subtract $b$ from both sides: $-b > -a$.
Note that this final inequality is equivalent to $-a < -b$.
And so we have proved: If $a > b$, then $-a < -b$.
3
Sweet, and the same works for reciprocation (if $a<b$ are of the same sign, divide by their strictly positive product $ab$)
– Vandermonde
yesterday
3
thanks, I get that the concern for proof is technically mathematical but it isn't covered in any proof for any math courses since it's just elementary and assumed to just be understood (in the US anyways). I'm just curious how to show it if some student ever asks.
– Lenny
yesterday
2
@Lenny This sort of thing is often proved in an introductory real analysis course.
– Steven Gubkin
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
33
down vote
accepted
up vote
33
down vote
accepted
I'm slightly concerned that
Is there a mathematical reason (like a proof) of why this happens?
is a purely mathematical question, but since you write "we just warn students" I will assume that this question is purposefully asked here on Math Educators StackExchange.
As to a proof:
Given $a>b$, subtract $a$ from both sides: $0 > b-a$.
Next, subtract $b$ from both sides: $-b > -a$.
Note that this final inequality is equivalent to $-a < -b$.
And so we have proved: If $a > b$, then $-a < -b$.
I'm slightly concerned that
Is there a mathematical reason (like a proof) of why this happens?
is a purely mathematical question, but since you write "we just warn students" I will assume that this question is purposefully asked here on Math Educators StackExchange.
As to a proof:
Given $a>b$, subtract $a$ from both sides: $0 > b-a$.
Next, subtract $b$ from both sides: $-b > -a$.
Note that this final inequality is equivalent to $-a < -b$.
And so we have proved: If $a > b$, then $-a < -b$.
answered yesterday
Benjamin Dickman
15.7k22892
15.7k22892
3
Sweet, and the same works for reciprocation (if $a<b$ are of the same sign, divide by their strictly positive product $ab$)
– Vandermonde
yesterday
3
thanks, I get that the concern for proof is technically mathematical but it isn't covered in any proof for any math courses since it's just elementary and assumed to just be understood (in the US anyways). I'm just curious how to show it if some student ever asks.
– Lenny
yesterday
2
@Lenny This sort of thing is often proved in an introductory real analysis course.
– Steven Gubkin
yesterday
add a comment |
3
Sweet, and the same works for reciprocation (if $a<b$ are of the same sign, divide by their strictly positive product $ab$)
– Vandermonde
yesterday
3
thanks, I get that the concern for proof is technically mathematical but it isn't covered in any proof for any math courses since it's just elementary and assumed to just be understood (in the US anyways). I'm just curious how to show it if some student ever asks.
– Lenny
yesterday
2
@Lenny This sort of thing is often proved in an introductory real analysis course.
– Steven Gubkin
yesterday
3
3
Sweet, and the same works for reciprocation (if $a<b$ are of the same sign, divide by their strictly positive product $ab$)
– Vandermonde
yesterday
Sweet, and the same works for reciprocation (if $a<b$ are of the same sign, divide by their strictly positive product $ab$)
– Vandermonde
yesterday
3
3
thanks, I get that the concern for proof is technically mathematical but it isn't covered in any proof for any math courses since it's just elementary and assumed to just be understood (in the US anyways). I'm just curious how to show it if some student ever asks.
– Lenny
yesterday
thanks, I get that the concern for proof is technically mathematical but it isn't covered in any proof for any math courses since it's just elementary and assumed to just be understood (in the US anyways). I'm just curious how to show it if some student ever asks.
– Lenny
yesterday
2
2
@Lenny This sort of thing is often proved in an introductory real analysis course.
– Steven Gubkin
yesterday
@Lenny This sort of thing is often proved in an introductory real analysis course.
– Steven Gubkin
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
8
down vote
Depending on the context and the previous curriculum, the following might work:
- "less than" means "to the left of" on the number line.
- Multiplying by a negative number flips numbers around 0.
- Thus, "left of" becomes "right of", or "greater than".
1
This works for reciprocals because you flip (say) the positive reals around 1 (and squash all the numbers greater than one into the unit interval, and stretch the unit interval out to infinity). That's harder to show on a blackboard, but makes for a nice visual if you can find a way to demo it.
– Kevin
yesterday
This seems like a visual translation of the intuitive understanding, but the question was asking for a mathematical explanation.
– Barmar
23 hours ago
If inequalities are defined on the number line and multiplication by -1 as flipping, this is 100% mathematical.
– Jasper
22 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
8
down vote
Depending on the context and the previous curriculum, the following might work:
- "less than" means "to the left of" on the number line.
- Multiplying by a negative number flips numbers around 0.
- Thus, "left of" becomes "right of", or "greater than".
1
This works for reciprocals because you flip (say) the positive reals around 1 (and squash all the numbers greater than one into the unit interval, and stretch the unit interval out to infinity). That's harder to show on a blackboard, but makes for a nice visual if you can find a way to demo it.
– Kevin
yesterday
This seems like a visual translation of the intuitive understanding, but the question was asking for a mathematical explanation.
– Barmar
23 hours ago
If inequalities are defined on the number line and multiplication by -1 as flipping, this is 100% mathematical.
– Jasper
22 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
8
down vote
up vote
8
down vote
Depending on the context and the previous curriculum, the following might work:
- "less than" means "to the left of" on the number line.
- Multiplying by a negative number flips numbers around 0.
- Thus, "left of" becomes "right of", or "greater than".
Depending on the context and the previous curriculum, the following might work:
- "less than" means "to the left of" on the number line.
- Multiplying by a negative number flips numbers around 0.
- Thus, "left of" becomes "right of", or "greater than".
answered yesterday
Jasper
49327
49327
1
This works for reciprocals because you flip (say) the positive reals around 1 (and squash all the numbers greater than one into the unit interval, and stretch the unit interval out to infinity). That's harder to show on a blackboard, but makes for a nice visual if you can find a way to demo it.
– Kevin
yesterday
This seems like a visual translation of the intuitive understanding, but the question was asking for a mathematical explanation.
– Barmar
23 hours ago
If inequalities are defined on the number line and multiplication by -1 as flipping, this is 100% mathematical.
– Jasper
22 hours ago
add a comment |
1
This works for reciprocals because you flip (say) the positive reals around 1 (and squash all the numbers greater than one into the unit interval, and stretch the unit interval out to infinity). That's harder to show on a blackboard, but makes for a nice visual if you can find a way to demo it.
– Kevin
yesterday
This seems like a visual translation of the intuitive understanding, but the question was asking for a mathematical explanation.
– Barmar
23 hours ago
If inequalities are defined on the number line and multiplication by -1 as flipping, this is 100% mathematical.
– Jasper
22 hours ago
1
1
This works for reciprocals because you flip (say) the positive reals around 1 (and squash all the numbers greater than one into the unit interval, and stretch the unit interval out to infinity). That's harder to show on a blackboard, but makes for a nice visual if you can find a way to demo it.
– Kevin
yesterday
This works for reciprocals because you flip (say) the positive reals around 1 (and squash all the numbers greater than one into the unit interval, and stretch the unit interval out to infinity). That's harder to show on a blackboard, but makes for a nice visual if you can find a way to demo it.
– Kevin
yesterday
This seems like a visual translation of the intuitive understanding, but the question was asking for a mathematical explanation.
– Barmar
23 hours ago
This seems like a visual translation of the intuitive understanding, but the question was asking for a mathematical explanation.
– Barmar
23 hours ago
If inequalities are defined on the number line and multiplication by -1 as flipping, this is 100% mathematical.
– Jasper
22 hours ago
If inequalities are defined on the number line and multiplication by -1 as flipping, this is 100% mathematical.
– Jasper
22 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
For multiplying or dividing by -1...
$$begin{align}
a&>b\
a-b&>0\
\-(a-b)&<0\
-a&<-b
end{align}
$$
(You can then extended to arbitrary negative numbers by multiplying or dividing by the [positive] magnitude.)
For taking reciprocals... assuming $ab>0$
$$begin{align}
a&>b\
left(frac{1}{ab}right)a&>left(frac{1}{ab}right)b\
frac{1}{b}&>frac{1}{a}\
frac{1}{a}&<frac{1}{b}\
end{align}
$$
New contributor
1
You might want to add some words in the slot where you flipped the sign from > 0 to < 0. My first reaction was that you just used the fact you were trying to prove. Anyway welcome to the site!
– Chris Cunningham
yesterday
2
Thanks... when posting I tried (unsuccessfully) to use intertext... so I tried a lineskip and went with that... avoiding further delay. Luckily(?), my post came in 2 minutes before the accepted answer by @Benjamin.
– robphy
yesterday
@robphy What is the point of the third step? You can go straight from the second to the fourth by subtracting $a$ from both sides and it doesn't need an additional rule that $a > 0 Rightarrow -a < 0$.
– Solomonoff's Secret
yesterday
In the spirit of my second proof, I should have subtracted the sum (a+b) from the first line. But I wanted to explicitly do the "multiplication by -1" because that subtraction move might not be obvious to a novice. In the spirit of my first proof, I should have divided both sides by b, then taken the reciprocal explicitly so that a/b > 1 becomes b/a <1. Then divide both sides by b to get 1/a < 1/b.
– robphy
21 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
For multiplying or dividing by -1...
$$begin{align}
a&>b\
a-b&>0\
\-(a-b)&<0\
-a&<-b
end{align}
$$
(You can then extended to arbitrary negative numbers by multiplying or dividing by the [positive] magnitude.)
For taking reciprocals... assuming $ab>0$
$$begin{align}
a&>b\
left(frac{1}{ab}right)a&>left(frac{1}{ab}right)b\
frac{1}{b}&>frac{1}{a}\
frac{1}{a}&<frac{1}{b}\
end{align}
$$
New contributor
1
You might want to add some words in the slot where you flipped the sign from > 0 to < 0. My first reaction was that you just used the fact you were trying to prove. Anyway welcome to the site!
– Chris Cunningham
yesterday
2
Thanks... when posting I tried (unsuccessfully) to use intertext... so I tried a lineskip and went with that... avoiding further delay. Luckily(?), my post came in 2 minutes before the accepted answer by @Benjamin.
– robphy
yesterday
@robphy What is the point of the third step? You can go straight from the second to the fourth by subtracting $a$ from both sides and it doesn't need an additional rule that $a > 0 Rightarrow -a < 0$.
– Solomonoff's Secret
yesterday
In the spirit of my second proof, I should have subtracted the sum (a+b) from the first line. But I wanted to explicitly do the "multiplication by -1" because that subtraction move might not be obvious to a novice. In the spirit of my first proof, I should have divided both sides by b, then taken the reciprocal explicitly so that a/b > 1 becomes b/a <1. Then divide both sides by b to get 1/a < 1/b.
– robphy
21 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
up vote
5
down vote
For multiplying or dividing by -1...
$$begin{align}
a&>b\
a-b&>0\
\-(a-b)&<0\
-a&<-b
end{align}
$$
(You can then extended to arbitrary negative numbers by multiplying or dividing by the [positive] magnitude.)
For taking reciprocals... assuming $ab>0$
$$begin{align}
a&>b\
left(frac{1}{ab}right)a&>left(frac{1}{ab}right)b\
frac{1}{b}&>frac{1}{a}\
frac{1}{a}&<frac{1}{b}\
end{align}
$$
New contributor
For multiplying or dividing by -1...
$$begin{align}
a&>b\
a-b&>0\
\-(a-b)&<0\
-a&<-b
end{align}
$$
(You can then extended to arbitrary negative numbers by multiplying or dividing by the [positive] magnitude.)
For taking reciprocals... assuming $ab>0$
$$begin{align}
a&>b\
left(frac{1}{ab}right)a&>left(frac{1}{ab}right)b\
frac{1}{b}&>frac{1}{a}\
frac{1}{a}&<frac{1}{b}\
end{align}
$$
New contributor
New contributor
answered yesterday
robphy
1511
1511
New contributor
New contributor
1
You might want to add some words in the slot where you flipped the sign from > 0 to < 0. My first reaction was that you just used the fact you were trying to prove. Anyway welcome to the site!
– Chris Cunningham
yesterday
2
Thanks... when posting I tried (unsuccessfully) to use intertext... so I tried a lineskip and went with that... avoiding further delay. Luckily(?), my post came in 2 minutes before the accepted answer by @Benjamin.
– robphy
yesterday
@robphy What is the point of the third step? You can go straight from the second to the fourth by subtracting $a$ from both sides and it doesn't need an additional rule that $a > 0 Rightarrow -a < 0$.
– Solomonoff's Secret
yesterday
In the spirit of my second proof, I should have subtracted the sum (a+b) from the first line. But I wanted to explicitly do the "multiplication by -1" because that subtraction move might not be obvious to a novice. In the spirit of my first proof, I should have divided both sides by b, then taken the reciprocal explicitly so that a/b > 1 becomes b/a <1. Then divide both sides by b to get 1/a < 1/b.
– robphy
21 hours ago
add a comment |
1
You might want to add some words in the slot where you flipped the sign from > 0 to < 0. My first reaction was that you just used the fact you were trying to prove. Anyway welcome to the site!
– Chris Cunningham
yesterday
2
Thanks... when posting I tried (unsuccessfully) to use intertext... so I tried a lineskip and went with that... avoiding further delay. Luckily(?), my post came in 2 minutes before the accepted answer by @Benjamin.
– robphy
yesterday
@robphy What is the point of the third step? You can go straight from the second to the fourth by subtracting $a$ from both sides and it doesn't need an additional rule that $a > 0 Rightarrow -a < 0$.
– Solomonoff's Secret
yesterday
In the spirit of my second proof, I should have subtracted the sum (a+b) from the first line. But I wanted to explicitly do the "multiplication by -1" because that subtraction move might not be obvious to a novice. In the spirit of my first proof, I should have divided both sides by b, then taken the reciprocal explicitly so that a/b > 1 becomes b/a <1. Then divide both sides by b to get 1/a < 1/b.
– robphy
21 hours ago
1
1
You might want to add some words in the slot where you flipped the sign from > 0 to < 0. My first reaction was that you just used the fact you were trying to prove. Anyway welcome to the site!
– Chris Cunningham
yesterday
You might want to add some words in the slot where you flipped the sign from > 0 to < 0. My first reaction was that you just used the fact you were trying to prove. Anyway welcome to the site!
– Chris Cunningham
yesterday
2
2
Thanks... when posting I tried (unsuccessfully) to use intertext... so I tried a lineskip and went with that... avoiding further delay. Luckily(?), my post came in 2 minutes before the accepted answer by @Benjamin.
– robphy
yesterday
Thanks... when posting I tried (unsuccessfully) to use intertext... so I tried a lineskip and went with that... avoiding further delay. Luckily(?), my post came in 2 minutes before the accepted answer by @Benjamin.
– robphy
yesterday
@robphy What is the point of the third step? You can go straight from the second to the fourth by subtracting $a$ from both sides and it doesn't need an additional rule that $a > 0 Rightarrow -a < 0$.
– Solomonoff's Secret
yesterday
@robphy What is the point of the third step? You can go straight from the second to the fourth by subtracting $a$ from both sides and it doesn't need an additional rule that $a > 0 Rightarrow -a < 0$.
– Solomonoff's Secret
yesterday
In the spirit of my second proof, I should have subtracted the sum (a+b) from the first line. But I wanted to explicitly do the "multiplication by -1" because that subtraction move might not be obvious to a novice. In the spirit of my first proof, I should have divided both sides by b, then taken the reciprocal explicitly so that a/b > 1 becomes b/a <1. Then divide both sides by b to get 1/a < 1/b.
– robphy
21 hours ago
In the spirit of my second proof, I should have subtracted the sum (a+b) from the first line. But I wanted to explicitly do the "multiplication by -1" because that subtraction move might not be obvious to a novice. In the spirit of my first proof, I should have divided both sides by b, then taken the reciprocal explicitly so that a/b > 1 becomes b/a <1. Then divide both sides by b to get 1/a < 1/b.
– robphy
21 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
Perhaps one way to see (and explain intuitively to children) the "multiply by $-1$ part" is the following. Imagine your two numbers, $a$ and $b$, lying on the numberline. Multiplying by $-1$ is like 'rotating the numberline through 180°': imagine it's a straight metal pole, lying flat on the ground; pick it up by the middle, and rotate it 'long ways' (ie not 'barrel roll') 180°. (One only needs to consider the line segment $[-max{a,b},max{a,b}]$ for this, in case you get a smart-arse saying you can't move something of infinite mass!)
It is hopefully clear to most people why the point that was to the right is now to the left.
This is only a visual intuition -- one of course needs to make this a rigorous proof, and the other answers do this -- however such intuition can often be valuable to early-learners.
A similar, but slightly less clean, statement can be made regarding inversion: take just the positive real axis $(0,infty)$; rotate it around the number $1$. (Since, again, we can look at $(0,M)$ for say $M = a + b$ (with $a,b > 0$), one could imagine some sort of ellipse.)
I would draw graphics to illustrate... if only I were better at doing so!
PS. In complex analysis, multiplying by $-1$ really is rotating by 180°!
New contributor
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
Perhaps one way to see (and explain intuitively to children) the "multiply by $-1$ part" is the following. Imagine your two numbers, $a$ and $b$, lying on the numberline. Multiplying by $-1$ is like 'rotating the numberline through 180°': imagine it's a straight metal pole, lying flat on the ground; pick it up by the middle, and rotate it 'long ways' (ie not 'barrel roll') 180°. (One only needs to consider the line segment $[-max{a,b},max{a,b}]$ for this, in case you get a smart-arse saying you can't move something of infinite mass!)
It is hopefully clear to most people why the point that was to the right is now to the left.
This is only a visual intuition -- one of course needs to make this a rigorous proof, and the other answers do this -- however such intuition can often be valuable to early-learners.
A similar, but slightly less clean, statement can be made regarding inversion: take just the positive real axis $(0,infty)$; rotate it around the number $1$. (Since, again, we can look at $(0,M)$ for say $M = a + b$ (with $a,b > 0$), one could imagine some sort of ellipse.)
I would draw graphics to illustrate... if only I were better at doing so!
PS. In complex analysis, multiplying by $-1$ really is rotating by 180°!
New contributor
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
up vote
5
down vote
Perhaps one way to see (and explain intuitively to children) the "multiply by $-1$ part" is the following. Imagine your two numbers, $a$ and $b$, lying on the numberline. Multiplying by $-1$ is like 'rotating the numberline through 180°': imagine it's a straight metal pole, lying flat on the ground; pick it up by the middle, and rotate it 'long ways' (ie not 'barrel roll') 180°. (One only needs to consider the line segment $[-max{a,b},max{a,b}]$ for this, in case you get a smart-arse saying you can't move something of infinite mass!)
It is hopefully clear to most people why the point that was to the right is now to the left.
This is only a visual intuition -- one of course needs to make this a rigorous proof, and the other answers do this -- however such intuition can often be valuable to early-learners.
A similar, but slightly less clean, statement can be made regarding inversion: take just the positive real axis $(0,infty)$; rotate it around the number $1$. (Since, again, we can look at $(0,M)$ for say $M = a + b$ (with $a,b > 0$), one could imagine some sort of ellipse.)
I would draw graphics to illustrate... if only I were better at doing so!
PS. In complex analysis, multiplying by $-1$ really is rotating by 180°!
New contributor
Perhaps one way to see (and explain intuitively to children) the "multiply by $-1$ part" is the following. Imagine your two numbers, $a$ and $b$, lying on the numberline. Multiplying by $-1$ is like 'rotating the numberline through 180°': imagine it's a straight metal pole, lying flat on the ground; pick it up by the middle, and rotate it 'long ways' (ie not 'barrel roll') 180°. (One only needs to consider the line segment $[-max{a,b},max{a,b}]$ for this, in case you get a smart-arse saying you can't move something of infinite mass!)
It is hopefully clear to most people why the point that was to the right is now to the left.
This is only a visual intuition -- one of course needs to make this a rigorous proof, and the other answers do this -- however such intuition can often be valuable to early-learners.
A similar, but slightly less clean, statement can be made regarding inversion: take just the positive real axis $(0,infty)$; rotate it around the number $1$. (Since, again, we can look at $(0,M)$ for say $M = a + b$ (with $a,b > 0$), one could imagine some sort of ellipse.)
I would draw graphics to illustrate... if only I were better at doing so!
PS. In complex analysis, multiplying by $-1$ really is rotating by 180°!
New contributor
edited yesterday
New contributor
answered yesterday
Sam T
1512
1512
New contributor
New contributor
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
In a more general case this happens if you deal with a strictly monotonic decreasing function like f(x) = -x or f(x) = 1/x (in the positive or negative numbers).
New contributor
Is monotonic monotonous? Just a humorous question.
– JosephDoggie
yesterday
@ChrisCunningham Yes, you're right of course. That's what you get for expecting google to treat the term as an entity.
– user10545
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
In a more general case this happens if you deal with a strictly monotonic decreasing function like f(x) = -x or f(x) = 1/x (in the positive or negative numbers).
New contributor
Is monotonic monotonous? Just a humorous question.
– JosephDoggie
yesterday
@ChrisCunningham Yes, you're right of course. That's what you get for expecting google to treat the term as an entity.
– user10545
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
In a more general case this happens if you deal with a strictly monotonic decreasing function like f(x) = -x or f(x) = 1/x (in the positive or negative numbers).
New contributor
In a more general case this happens if you deal with a strictly monotonic decreasing function like f(x) = -x or f(x) = 1/x (in the positive or negative numbers).
New contributor
edited yesterday
New contributor
answered yesterday
user10545
213
213
New contributor
New contributor
Is monotonic monotonous? Just a humorous question.
– JosephDoggie
yesterday
@ChrisCunningham Yes, you're right of course. That's what you get for expecting google to treat the term as an entity.
– user10545
yesterday
add a comment |
Is monotonic monotonous? Just a humorous question.
– JosephDoggie
yesterday
@ChrisCunningham Yes, you're right of course. That's what you get for expecting google to treat the term as an entity.
– user10545
yesterday
Is monotonic monotonous? Just a humorous question.
– JosephDoggie
yesterday
Is monotonic monotonous? Just a humorous question.
– JosephDoggie
yesterday
@ChrisCunningham Yes, you're right of course. That's what you get for expecting google to treat the term as an entity.
– user10545
yesterday
@ChrisCunningham Yes, you're right of course. That's what you get for expecting google to treat the term as an entity.
– user10545
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Which would you rather I give you: 10 cookies or 8 cookies? Okay, now which would you rather have me take away: 10 cookies, or 8 cookies? Adding 10 gives you a larger number than adding 8, but subtracting 10 means leaves you with a smaller number than subtracting 8 does. Similarly, multiplying by 3 gives you more than multiplying by 2, but dividing by 3 gives you less than dividing by 2.
Moral plus one.
– guest
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Which would you rather I give you: 10 cookies or 8 cookies? Okay, now which would you rather have me take away: 10 cookies, or 8 cookies? Adding 10 gives you a larger number than adding 8, but subtracting 10 means leaves you with a smaller number than subtracting 8 does. Similarly, multiplying by 3 gives you more than multiplying by 2, but dividing by 3 gives you less than dividing by 2.
Moral plus one.
– guest
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Which would you rather I give you: 10 cookies or 8 cookies? Okay, now which would you rather have me take away: 10 cookies, or 8 cookies? Adding 10 gives you a larger number than adding 8, but subtracting 10 means leaves you with a smaller number than subtracting 8 does. Similarly, multiplying by 3 gives you more than multiplying by 2, but dividing by 3 gives you less than dividing by 2.
Which would you rather I give you: 10 cookies or 8 cookies? Okay, now which would you rather have me take away: 10 cookies, or 8 cookies? Adding 10 gives you a larger number than adding 8, but subtracting 10 means leaves you with a smaller number than subtracting 8 does. Similarly, multiplying by 3 gives you more than multiplying by 2, but dividing by 3 gives you less than dividing by 2.
answered yesterday
Acccumulation
3222
3222
Moral plus one.
– guest
yesterday
add a comment |
Moral plus one.
– guest
yesterday
Moral plus one.
– guest
yesterday
Moral plus one.
– guest
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
I can't help but feel this question highlights the self defeating nature of teaching maths via "cheat tricks". In my opinion it is probably best not to teach students ever to just "switch the sign" of the inequality in an arbitrary manner, which can be confusing.
As elegantly illustrated by @Benjamin_Dickman's proof, the alternative notation
$$a>b quad text{implies} quad -b>-a$$
is much clearer, and invites the student to treat the inequality as a fixed equivalence in the same way they would treat an equality.
I feel it might be less confusing for students were this convention adopted, and the inequality was never reversed but for as a last resort. That would mean one less "rule" for students to "remember".
New contributor
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
I can't help but feel this question highlights the self defeating nature of teaching maths via "cheat tricks". In my opinion it is probably best not to teach students ever to just "switch the sign" of the inequality in an arbitrary manner, which can be confusing.
As elegantly illustrated by @Benjamin_Dickman's proof, the alternative notation
$$a>b quad text{implies} quad -b>-a$$
is much clearer, and invites the student to treat the inequality as a fixed equivalence in the same way they would treat an equality.
I feel it might be less confusing for students were this convention adopted, and the inequality was never reversed but for as a last resort. That would mean one less "rule" for students to "remember".
New contributor
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
I can't help but feel this question highlights the self defeating nature of teaching maths via "cheat tricks". In my opinion it is probably best not to teach students ever to just "switch the sign" of the inequality in an arbitrary manner, which can be confusing.
As elegantly illustrated by @Benjamin_Dickman's proof, the alternative notation
$$a>b quad text{implies} quad -b>-a$$
is much clearer, and invites the student to treat the inequality as a fixed equivalence in the same way they would treat an equality.
I feel it might be less confusing for students were this convention adopted, and the inequality was never reversed but for as a last resort. That would mean one less "rule" for students to "remember".
New contributor
I can't help but feel this question highlights the self defeating nature of teaching maths via "cheat tricks". In my opinion it is probably best not to teach students ever to just "switch the sign" of the inequality in an arbitrary manner, which can be confusing.
As elegantly illustrated by @Benjamin_Dickman's proof, the alternative notation
$$a>b quad text{implies} quad -b>-a$$
is much clearer, and invites the student to treat the inequality as a fixed equivalence in the same way they would treat an equality.
I feel it might be less confusing for students were this convention adopted, and the inequality was never reversed but for as a last resort. That would mean one less "rule" for students to "remember".
New contributor
New contributor
answered 9 hours ago
Aerinmund Fagelson
1111
1111
New contributor
New contributor
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
I see it as a combination of the following, when we assume a field with a positive cone, and trichotomy. We want to show that if $a<b$ and $c<0$, then $cb<ac$.
It is natural to expect the product of positive numbers to be positive.
We denote the additive inverse of $a$ by $-a$.
We note, from $a+(-a)=0$, that $-(-a)=a$.
We note that $(-a)b=-(ab)$. Proof: $(-a)b+ab=(-a+a)b=0times b=0$ (one can earlier deduce that multiplication by $0$ is $0$ from distributivity).
Now $(-a)(-b)=-(a(-b))=-((-b)a)=-(-ab)=ab$.
From the above we conclude that the product of two negative numbers is positive, and that a positive number times a negative is negative.
Now if $a<b$ and $c<0$, we have $b-a>0$ and $-c>0$, so $(-c)(b-a)>0$. That is, $-cb+ac>0$, or $cb<ac$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
I see it as a combination of the following, when we assume a field with a positive cone, and trichotomy. We want to show that if $a<b$ and $c<0$, then $cb<ac$.
It is natural to expect the product of positive numbers to be positive.
We denote the additive inverse of $a$ by $-a$.
We note, from $a+(-a)=0$, that $-(-a)=a$.
We note that $(-a)b=-(ab)$. Proof: $(-a)b+ab=(-a+a)b=0times b=0$ (one can earlier deduce that multiplication by $0$ is $0$ from distributivity).
Now $(-a)(-b)=-(a(-b))=-((-b)a)=-(-ab)=ab$.
From the above we conclude that the product of two negative numbers is positive, and that a positive number times a negative is negative.
Now if $a<b$ and $c<0$, we have $b-a>0$ and $-c>0$, so $(-c)(b-a)>0$. That is, $-cb+ac>0$, or $cb<ac$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
I see it as a combination of the following, when we assume a field with a positive cone, and trichotomy. We want to show that if $a<b$ and $c<0$, then $cb<ac$.
It is natural to expect the product of positive numbers to be positive.
We denote the additive inverse of $a$ by $-a$.
We note, from $a+(-a)=0$, that $-(-a)=a$.
We note that $(-a)b=-(ab)$. Proof: $(-a)b+ab=(-a+a)b=0times b=0$ (one can earlier deduce that multiplication by $0$ is $0$ from distributivity).
Now $(-a)(-b)=-(a(-b))=-((-b)a)=-(-ab)=ab$.
From the above we conclude that the product of two negative numbers is positive, and that a positive number times a negative is negative.
Now if $a<b$ and $c<0$, we have $b-a>0$ and $-c>0$, so $(-c)(b-a)>0$. That is, $-cb+ac>0$, or $cb<ac$.
I see it as a combination of the following, when we assume a field with a positive cone, and trichotomy. We want to show that if $a<b$ and $c<0$, then $cb<ac$.
It is natural to expect the product of positive numbers to be positive.
We denote the additive inverse of $a$ by $-a$.
We note, from $a+(-a)=0$, that $-(-a)=a$.
We note that $(-a)b=-(ab)$. Proof: $(-a)b+ab=(-a+a)b=0times b=0$ (one can earlier deduce that multiplication by $0$ is $0$ from distributivity).
Now $(-a)(-b)=-(a(-b))=-((-b)a)=-(-ab)=ab$.
From the above we conclude that the product of two negative numbers is positive, and that a positive number times a negative is negative.
Now if $a<b$ and $c<0$, we have $b-a>0$ and $-c>0$, so $(-c)(b-a)>0$. That is, $-cb+ac>0$, or $cb<ac$.
answered yesterday
Martin Argerami
51728
51728
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Other answers address multiplication by a negative number on both sides better than I can. For taking reciprocals of both sides, it may be helpful to examine why we know we can do that and maintain equality. This is one simple demonstration:
Starting with the equation $frac{a}{b}=frac{c}{d}$,
we can multiply both sides by $frac{d}{c}$, giving $frac{ad}{bc}=frac{cd}{dc}$, which simplifies to $frac{ac}{bd}=1$.
We can then do the same with $frac{b}{a}$, giving $frac{bad}{abc}=frac{b}{a}cdot 1$, which simplifies to $frac{d}{c}=frac{b}{a}$.
This shows that if two numbers are equal, then their reciprocals are equal. However, notice that we didn't just turn each number into its reciprocal. We also flipped their positions: the $frac{a}{b}$ on the left became $frac{b}{a}$, but on the right. When we're talking about equality, this is inconsequential, since equality is symmetric. However, if you take the same example with $=$ replaced with $>$ or $<$, the fact that the values "switched places" does matter.
This demonstration also shows why the sign only flips when both sides have the same sign. If they have different signs, then their reciprocals also have different signs, and exactly one of the multiplications by a reciprocal causes the inequality to flip. So you could argue that it does flip, but then it flips again, making it seem like it hasn't flipped. Similarly, if both sides are negative, it flips a total of three times, which has the same result as flipping once.
New contributor
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Other answers address multiplication by a negative number on both sides better than I can. For taking reciprocals of both sides, it may be helpful to examine why we know we can do that and maintain equality. This is one simple demonstration:
Starting with the equation $frac{a}{b}=frac{c}{d}$,
we can multiply both sides by $frac{d}{c}$, giving $frac{ad}{bc}=frac{cd}{dc}$, which simplifies to $frac{ac}{bd}=1$.
We can then do the same with $frac{b}{a}$, giving $frac{bad}{abc}=frac{b}{a}cdot 1$, which simplifies to $frac{d}{c}=frac{b}{a}$.
This shows that if two numbers are equal, then their reciprocals are equal. However, notice that we didn't just turn each number into its reciprocal. We also flipped their positions: the $frac{a}{b}$ on the left became $frac{b}{a}$, but on the right. When we're talking about equality, this is inconsequential, since equality is symmetric. However, if you take the same example with $=$ replaced with $>$ or $<$, the fact that the values "switched places" does matter.
This demonstration also shows why the sign only flips when both sides have the same sign. If they have different signs, then their reciprocals also have different signs, and exactly one of the multiplications by a reciprocal causes the inequality to flip. So you could argue that it does flip, but then it flips again, making it seem like it hasn't flipped. Similarly, if both sides are negative, it flips a total of three times, which has the same result as flipping once.
New contributor
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Other answers address multiplication by a negative number on both sides better than I can. For taking reciprocals of both sides, it may be helpful to examine why we know we can do that and maintain equality. This is one simple demonstration:
Starting with the equation $frac{a}{b}=frac{c}{d}$,
we can multiply both sides by $frac{d}{c}$, giving $frac{ad}{bc}=frac{cd}{dc}$, which simplifies to $frac{ac}{bd}=1$.
We can then do the same with $frac{b}{a}$, giving $frac{bad}{abc}=frac{b}{a}cdot 1$, which simplifies to $frac{d}{c}=frac{b}{a}$.
This shows that if two numbers are equal, then their reciprocals are equal. However, notice that we didn't just turn each number into its reciprocal. We also flipped their positions: the $frac{a}{b}$ on the left became $frac{b}{a}$, but on the right. When we're talking about equality, this is inconsequential, since equality is symmetric. However, if you take the same example with $=$ replaced with $>$ or $<$, the fact that the values "switched places" does matter.
This demonstration also shows why the sign only flips when both sides have the same sign. If they have different signs, then their reciprocals also have different signs, and exactly one of the multiplications by a reciprocal causes the inequality to flip. So you could argue that it does flip, but then it flips again, making it seem like it hasn't flipped. Similarly, if both sides are negative, it flips a total of three times, which has the same result as flipping once.
New contributor
Other answers address multiplication by a negative number on both sides better than I can. For taking reciprocals of both sides, it may be helpful to examine why we know we can do that and maintain equality. This is one simple demonstration:
Starting with the equation $frac{a}{b}=frac{c}{d}$,
we can multiply both sides by $frac{d}{c}$, giving $frac{ad}{bc}=frac{cd}{dc}$, which simplifies to $frac{ac}{bd}=1$.
We can then do the same with $frac{b}{a}$, giving $frac{bad}{abc}=frac{b}{a}cdot 1$, which simplifies to $frac{d}{c}=frac{b}{a}$.
This shows that if two numbers are equal, then their reciprocals are equal. However, notice that we didn't just turn each number into its reciprocal. We also flipped their positions: the $frac{a}{b}$ on the left became $frac{b}{a}$, but on the right. When we're talking about equality, this is inconsequential, since equality is symmetric. However, if you take the same example with $=$ replaced with $>$ or $<$, the fact that the values "switched places" does matter.
This demonstration also shows why the sign only flips when both sides have the same sign. If they have different signs, then their reciprocals also have different signs, and exactly one of the multiplications by a reciprocal causes the inequality to flip. So you could argue that it does flip, but then it flips again, making it seem like it hasn't flipped. Similarly, if both sides are negative, it flips a total of three times, which has the same result as flipping once.
New contributor
New contributor
answered 13 hours ago
beiju
1011
1011
New contributor
New contributor
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1
See math.stackexchange.com/questions/1543722/…
– TreFox
yesterday
But the proof of why this happens is never shown in pedagogy --- I was curious about the book I used in high school algebra 1 (actually was the 1970 revised edition), since it was new-math based and heavy with proofs (actually, it was mostly heavy with terminological formalism), and it only gives some numerical examples of how multiplying by a negative number reverses the order and then simply states the results in a "Multiplication Axiom of Order" shaded section.
– Dave L Renfro
11 hours ago